GC066 I Have Fluctuating BP
Fluctuating blood pressure refers to significant variability in blood pressure readings over short periods, which may result from autonomic dysfunction, medication effects, arterial stiffness, or emotional and physiological stressors, and can increase the risk of cardiovascular events.
I Have Fluctuating BP: Endocrine Hypertension, Adrenal Diseases & Tumours
Lecture Map
This lecture addresses secondary hypertension caused by endocrine disorders — specifically conditions arising from the adrenal gland. While essential hypertension accounts for 92–94% of all hypertension in the general population, endocrine hypertension represents a small but critically important subset (0.3–0.4% of the general population, but up to 0.5–12% in specialist clinics) because these conditions are potentially curable if correctly identified [1].
The lecture systematically covers three major endocrine causes of hypertension:
- Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
- Cushing's syndrome (glucocorticoid excess)
- Phaeochromocytoma (catecholamine-secreting tumour)
For each condition, the lecture covers physiology → pathology → clinical features → biochemical investigation → localisation → management → surgical considerations.
This is a perennial favourite for summative exams — it integrates biochemistry (RAAS, cortisol axis, catecholamines), endocrinology, surgery (adrenalectomy), and pharmacology (spironolactone, phenoxybenzamine, metyrapone). Past papers consistently test:
- Recognising the clinical triad of phaeochromocytoma
- Interpreting dexamethasone suppression test results
- Differentiating adenoma vs. hyperplasia in primary aldosteronism
- Perioperative management of Cushing's and phaeochromocytoma
- Understanding why α-blockade must precede β-blockade
Essential hypertension accounts for 92–94% of all hypertension in the general population (65–85% in specialist clinics). Renal parenchymal disease causes 2–3% (4–5% in clinic), renovascular disease 1–2% (4–16% in clinic), and endocrine hypertension 0.3–0.4% (0.5–12% in clinic). [1]
| Diagnosis | General Population (%) | Specialist Clinic (%) |
|---|---|---|
| Essential hypertension | 92–94 | 65–85 |
| Renal parenchymal | 2–3 | 4–5 |
| Renovascular | 1–2 | 4–16 |
| Endocrine hypertension | 0.3–0.4 | 0.5–12 |
Why this matters: The huge difference between population and clinic prevalence reflects referral bias — patients referred to specialists are more likely to have resistant or unusual hypertension, hence more secondary causes. The GP must screen for secondary causes, but the specialist must have a high index of suspicion [1][2].
Part 1: Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome)
Aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption in the distal renal tubule and ascending loop of Henle by exchanging Na⁺ for K⁺ and H⁺ ions. Excess aldosterone therefore leads to hypokalaemia and metabolic alkalosis. [1]
Why hypokalaemia? Because aldosterone drives the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) in the collecting duct principal cells. As Na⁺ is reabsorbed, the lumen becomes more electronegative, which drives K⁺ and H⁺ secretion. More aldosterone = more Na⁺ reabsorbed = more K⁺ and H⁺ lost → hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
Why hypertension? Na⁺ retention expands extracellular fluid volume → increased blood pressure. Additionally, aldosterone has direct vascular and cardiac pro-fibrotic effects.
Mineralocorticoid action: 30–40% from basal cortisol secretion, 50–60% from aldosterone. Controlled by the renin-angiotensin system. [1]
This is a crucial point: cortisol itself has mineralocorticoid activity. In normal physiology, 11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2 (11β-HSD2) in the kidney converts cortisol → cortisone (which doesn't activate the mineralocorticoid receptor). In Cushing's syndrome, cortisol overwhelms this enzyme → mineralocorticoid effects → hypokalaemia. This also explains the mechanism of liquorice-induced hypertension (liquorice inhibits 11β-HSD2).
Angiotensinogen (liver) → [Renin from kidneys] → Angiotensin I → [ACE] → Angiotensin II → Vasoconstriction + Aldosterone secretion from adrenals → Na⁺ retention → ↑BP [1]
| Factor | Effect on Aldosterone |
|---|---|
| Angiotensin II | Stimulates |
| ACTH | Short-term stimulation |
| Hyperkalaemia | Stimulates |
| Hyponatraemia | Stimulates |
Physiological stimuli increasing aldosterone: upright posture, exercise, sodium deprivation, hypovolaemia, stress, diuretics. Decreasing: increasing age, sodium loading, volume overload. [1]
Why posture matters so much: Standing upright activates the RAAS (blood pools in lower extremities → relative hypovolaemia → renin release). This is the physiological basis of the postural test used to differentiate adenoma from hyperplasia (see below).
Primary hyperaldosteronism: adrenal adenoma (Conn's syndrome) 60–70%, adrenal hyperplasia 20–40%, dexamethasone-suppressible 1–2%, adrenal carcinoma — very rare. [1]
Secondary hyperaldosteronism: renal artery stenosis, congestive cardiac failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, salt-losing states. [1]
Primary vs Secondary — The Key Distinction
In primary hyperaldosteronism, the adrenal gland autonomously produces excess aldosterone → plasma renin is suppressed (negative feedback). In secondary hyperaldosteronism, the RAAS is appropriately activated by something upstream (e.g. renal artery stenosis reducing renal perfusion) → plasma renin is elevated. This distinction is the foundation of all investigation algorithms.
Step 1: Exclude other causes of hypokalaemia — diuretics, GI loss, renal tubular acidosis. [1]
Step 2: Document excessive urinary potassium loss. [1]
Step 3: Ensure a reasonable Na⁺ intake because low Na⁺ intake may protect against hypokalaemia by decreasing tubular Na⁺ available for exchange. [1]
Why Na⁺ intake matters: If the patient is on a low-sodium diet, less Na⁺ reaches the collecting duct for exchange with K⁺, so hypokalaemia may be masked. You need adequate Na⁺ delivery to "unmask" the K⁺-wasting effect of aldosterone.
Step 4: Stop diuretics, β-blockers and ACE inhibitors for at least 2 weeks before dynamic biochemical tests. [1]
Why stop these drugs?
- Diuretics: Cause hypokalaemia independently and activate RAAS → confound results
- β-blockers: Suppress renin release (renin is partly controlled by β₁-receptors on juxtaglomerular cells) → falsely low renin
- ACE inhibitors: Block Ang II formation → falsely low aldosterone, falsely high renin
The Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio (ARR) is the initial screening test (from GC 153 and Block A notes) [3]. A high ARR ( > 30 with aldosterone in ng/dL and renin in ng/mL/h) suggests primary aldosteronism and warrants confirmatory testing.
0.9% normal saline IV (500 mL/h) for 4 hours — i.e. 2L in 4 hours, sitting or recumbent. Monitor pulse and BP and watch for signs of fluid overload. Measure renin/aldosterone post salt loading. Normal response: suppression of renin and aldosterone levels. Primary aldosteronism: failure or inadequate suppression. [1]
Why this works: In a normal person, sodium loading expands blood volume → suppresses RAAS → aldosterone falls. In primary aldosteronism, the adrenal is autonomously producing aldosterone, so it does not suppress despite volume expansion.
Safety Warning
You are giving 2L of IV saline over 4 hours to a hypertensive, potentially volume-overloaded patient. You MUST monitor for signs of fluid overload (rising JVP, basal crepitations, worsening BP). This is why the lecture specifically emphasises monitoring.
Postural test: Measure supine/erect plasma renin and aldosterone. Supine at 8am after 8 hours overnight recumbence. Erect at 12 noon after 4 hours of ambulation. Normal response: supine to upright posture activates RAA with a rise in renin and aldosterone. [1]
Adenoma is very sensitive to ACTH. Hyperplasia responds excessively to angiotensin II but not to ACTH. [1]
Early morning supine position — ACTH drive is high and angiotensin drive is low. Lunchtime erect position — ACTH drive has fallen and angiotensin drive is high. [1]
The reasoning:
- Adenoma cells are ACTH-responsive. In the early morning (supine), ACTH is at its peak (diurnal rhythm), so adenoma aldosterone is high. By noon (erect), ACTH has fallen, and even though angiotensin rises from standing, the adenoma doesn't respond well to angiotensin → aldosterone paradoxically falls on standing.
- Hyperplasia cells are angiotensin-responsive. Standing activates RAAS → angiotensin II rises → hyperplastic glands respond excessively → aldosterone rises exaggeratedly on standing.
| Feature | Adenoma | Hyperplasia |
|---|---|---|
| Plasma K⁺ | Very low to normal | Low to normal |
| Basal aldosterone | High to very high | High / high normal |
| Basal PRA | Low | Low to low normal |
| Aldosterone response to standing | ↓ in 70–90% | ↑ in 90% |
| Adrenal venous sampling | Unilateral ↑, contralateral suppressed | Bilateral production |
| CT/MRI | Unilateral tumour | Normal / slightly enlarged |
This is the gold standard for lateralisation. A CT may show a nodule, but incidentalomas are common (especially in older patients), so you cannot rely on imaging alone. AVS catheterises both adrenal veins and measures aldosterone:cortisol ratios bilaterally. A lateralisation ratio > 4:1 confirms unilateral disease → surgical candidate [1][2].
Spironolactone: competitive antagonist to aldosterone. Amiloride or triamterene: direct actions on distal renal tubules blocking Na⁺ reabsorption and K⁺ excretion independent of aldosterone. Surgery in adrenal adenoma. Medical treatment in adrenal hyperplasia. [1]
| Subtype | Treatment |
|---|---|
| Adenoma | Surgery (laparoscopic adrenalectomy) |
| Bilateral hyperplasia | Medical: spironolactone (first-line) or amiloride |
Why spironolactone? It directly blocks the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR), reversing Na⁺ retention, K⁺ wasting, and BP elevation. Side effects include gynaecomastia (because spironolactone also has anti-androgenic activity) — in male patients, eplerenone (a more selective MR antagonist) may be preferred.
Why amiloride? It blocks ENaC directly, so it works downstream of aldosterone. Useful as an alternative or adjunct when spironolactone side effects are intolerable.
Part 2: Cushing's Syndrome
ACTH-dependent: Cushing's disease (pituitary/hypothalamic) → ACTH ↑, cortisol ↑. Ectopic ACTH (malignant or benign non-endocrine tumour) → ACTH ↑, cortisol ↑. [1]
Non-ACTH-dependent: Adrenal adenoma → ACTH suppressed, cortisol ↑. Adrenal carcinoma → ACTH suppressed, cortisol ↑. Iatrogenic (steroid administration) → ACTH suppressed, cortisol decreased (exogenous steroids not measured as cortisol). [1]
| Condition | Cause | ACTH | Cortisol |
|---|---|---|---|
| Cushing's disease | Pituitary/hypothalamic | ↑ | ↑ |
| Ectopic ACTH | Non-endocrine tumour | ↑ | ↑ |
| Adrenal adenoma | — | Suppressed | ↑ |
| Adrenal carcinoma | — | Suppressed | ↑ |
| Iatrogenic | Steroid administration | Suppressed | Decreased (endogenous) |
The Most Common Cause
In real clinical practice, iatrogenic Cushing's (from exogenous corticosteroid use) is by far the most common. Among endogenous causes, Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma, ~70%) is most common, followed by ectopic ACTH (~15%) and adrenal causes (~15%). Ectopic ACTH sources include small cell lung cancer, bronchial carcinoid, and thymic carcinoid.
From the 2021 past paper minicase, students were asked to "list physical signs which suggest glucocorticoid excess" [10]. Key features include:
- Central obesity with thin limbs (cortisol promotes visceral fat deposition while causing peripheral muscle wasting)
- Moon face and buffalo hump (fat redistribution)
- Purple striae (> 1cm wide, on abdomen, thighs, breasts — cortisol weakens collagen)
- Easy bruising and thin skin (collagen and vascular fragility)
- Proximal myopathy (cortisol is catabolic to muscle)
- Hypertension (cortisol has mineralocorticoid activity + potentiates catecholamines)
- Glucose intolerance/diabetes (cortisol is diabetogenic — gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance)
- Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis (mineralocorticoid effect)
- Osteoporosis (cortisol inhibits osteoblasts, promotes osteoclasts)
- Depression/psychosis (neuropsychiatric effects of cortisol)
- Hirsutism and acne (adrenal androgen excess in adrenal causes)
Investigations of Cushing's Syndrome
Basal studies: 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 17-ketosteroids, plasma cortisol and ACTH at 9:00am and midnight. [1]
Screening: (1) Overnight Dexamethasone Suppression Test — for screening only, can be done on an outpatient basis. Basal cortisol at 9am; 1mg dexamethasone orally at midnight; measure plasma cortisol at 9am next morning. (2) Late-night salivary free cortisol. None of the initial tests have ideal sensitivity or specificity. [1]
Why overnight DST works: Dexamethasone is a synthetic glucocorticoid that normally suppresses ACTH via negative feedback → cortisol falls. In Cushing's syndrome of any cause, 1mg is insufficient to suppress cortisol production → cortisol remains elevated the next morning ( > 50 nmol/L or > 1.8 μg/dL is a positive screen).
Why midnight cortisol/salivary cortisol: Normal cortisol follows a diurnal rhythm — peak at ~8am, nadir at midnight. In Cushing's syndrome, this diurnal variation is lost — midnight cortisol is inappropriately high. Late-night salivary cortisol is a convenient, non-invasive way to capture this.
Low-dose DST: 0.5mg q6hr for 2 days — no suppression in Cushing's syndrome. High-dose DST: 2mg q6hr for 2 days — no suppression in ectopic ACTH and primary adrenal lesions; pituitary Cushing's suppressed. [1]
CRF (CRH) test: 1 μg/kg IV, serial samples for ACTH and cortisol for 2 hours. Differentiates pituitary from ectopic ACTH. [1]
The logic chain:
-
Low-dose DST: Distinguishes Cushing's syndrome (any cause) from normal. In Cushing's, 2mg/day of dexamethasone is not enough to suppress the autonomous cortisol production → no suppression.
-
High-dose DST: Distinguishes pituitary Cushing's disease from ectopic ACTH and adrenal causes.
- Pituitary Cushing's: The pituitary adenoma retains PARTIAL sensitivity to negative feedback. At very high doses (8mg/day), enough dexamethasone reaches the pituitary to suppress ACTH → cortisol suppresses (usually > 50% reduction).
- Ectopic ACTH: The non-pituitary tumour does not have glucocorticoid receptors (or they are non-functional) → no suppression.
- Adrenal causes: ACTH is already suppressed by autonomous cortisol → dexamethasone cannot suppress further → no suppression.
-
CRH test: CRH stimulates pituitary corticotrophs. In pituitary Cushing's, there is an exaggerated ACTH and cortisol response (the adenoma is hyperresponsive). In ectopic ACTH, there is no significant rise (the tumour is not CRH-responsive, and the normal pituitary is suppressed).
| Test | Pituitary Cushing's | Ectopic ACTH | Adrenal Adenoma | Adrenal Carcinoma |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Low-dose DST | No suppression | No suppression | No suppression | No suppression |
| High-dose DST | Usually suppressed | Usually no suppression | No suppression | No suppression |
| ACTH level | Normal–high | Usually high, occasionally normal | Undetectable | Undetectable |
| CRH test | Exaggerated rise | No significant rise | — | — |
CXR, MRI pituitary, CT adrenals, CT body scans. Venous sampling for ACTH — Inferior Petrosal Sinus Sampling (IPSS). [1]
IPSS is the gold standard for confirming pituitary source. Catheters are placed in both inferior petrosal sinuses, and ACTH is measured centrally vs peripherally before and after CRH stimulation. A central:peripheral ratio > 2 (basal) or > 3 (post-CRH) confirms pituitary source. This is crucial because pituitary microadenomas are often too small to see on MRI [1][2].
Adrenal tumours — surgery. Pituitary tumours — transsphenoidal surgery. Medical treatment essential to reduce hypercortisolism prior to surgery. [1]
Metyrapone: blocks cortisol synthesis at the final 11β-hydroxylase step. Ketoconazole: inhibits cortisol and androgen secretion — hepatotoxicity is a potential problem. [1]
Why reduce cortisol before surgery? Hypercortisolaemia causes:
- Poor wound healing
- Immunosuppression → infection risk
- Hyperglycaemia
- Hypertension
- Thromboembolic risk
Operating on a hypercortisolaemic patient without pre-treatment dramatically increases surgical morbidity and mortality.
Control and correct: blood pressure, diabetes, hypokalaemia. Prophylaxis: steroid cover, antibiotics, deep vein thrombosis. [1]
Why Steroid Cover After Adrenalectomy?
After removing a cortisol-secreting adrenal tumour (or after transsphenoidal surgery for Cushing's disease), the contralateral adrenal gland has been chronically suppressed by negative feedback. It may take months to years for the HPA axis to recover. Without exogenous steroid replacement, the patient will develop acute adrenal crisis (hypotension, hypoglycaemia, shock). Therefore, perioperative and post-operative glucocorticoid replacement is mandatory with gradual tapering guided by morning cortisol levels.
Part 3: Phaeochromocytoma
The biosynthetic pathway for catecholamines is almost identical in adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons. An additional phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT) step converts noradrenaline → adrenaline in the adrenal medulla. [1]
Pathway: Tyrosine → DOPA (tyrosine hydroxylase, rate-limiting) → Dopamine → Noradrenaline → Adrenaline (PNMT, only in adrenal medulla)
Noradrenaline: α₁ and β₁ receptors. 95% from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings, remainder from adrenal medulla. Adrenaline: β₁ and β₂ receptors, weak α₁ actions — represents true secretion from adrenal medulla. Dopamine: released during intense adrenal medullary activity; most circulating dopamine is of renal origin. [1]
Metabolised predominantly extraneuronally by catecholamine-O-methyltransferase (COMT) to O-methylated derivatives. COMT found mainly in liver and kidney. Methylated catecholamines are then deaminated and finally oxidised to vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) which is excreted in urine. [1]
Clinical relevance: This is why we measure urinary VMA, urinary metanephrines (normetanephrine and metanephrine), and urinary catecholamines for diagnosis. Plasma free metanephrines have the highest sensitivity (~99%) and are the preferred initial screening test in current guidelines, though the lecture emphasises urinary measurements [1][3].
Arises from chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla. Rule of 10 no longer valid. 20% extra-adrenal. 24% familial (MEN II, neurofibromatosis). Up to 36% malignant. [1]
The 'Rule of 10' Is Outdated
The old teaching was "10% bilateral, 10% extra-adrenal, 10% malignant, 10% familial." The lecture explicitly states this is no longer valid — the percentages are all higher than previously thought. This is important because it changes clinical practice: more patients need genetic testing, more surveillance for bilateral/extra-adrenal disease, and a higher index of suspicion for malignancy.
Extra-adrenal tumours tend to produce noradrenaline whereas adrenal tumours usually produce both [noradrenaline and adrenaline]. [1]
Why? Extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue (paraganglia) lacks PNMT, the enzyme that converts noradrenaline → adrenaline. Only the adrenal medulla expresses PNMT (which requires high local cortisol concentrations from the adrenal cortex for induction). Hence, pure noradrenaline production suggests extra-adrenal or paraganglioma.
- MEN 2A: Medullary thyroid carcinoma + phaeochromocytoma + primary hyperparathyroidism (RET mutation)
- MEN 2B: Medullary thyroid carcinoma + phaeochromocytoma + mucosal neuromas/marfanoid habitus (RET mutation)
- Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
- Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome
- Succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) mutations — especially paragangliomas
Hypertension (paroxysmal or sustained), headache, palpitations, hyperhydrosis, dizziness, anxiety, pallor, weight loss, hypermetabolism, pyrexia, angina, cardiac failure, stroke, glucose intolerance, diabetes. [1]
Classic Triad — Exam Favourite
The classic triad of phaeochromocytoma is: Headache + Palpitations + Hyperhydrosis (sweating) — all occurring paroxysmally with severe hypertension [1]. The 2020 MCQ Q42 tested exactly this: "A 55-year-old man complained of attacks of headache associated with palpitations and diaphoresis. He was noted to have very high blood pressure during these attacks" → Answer: Phaeochromocytoma [8].
Why pallor (not flushing)? Catecholamines cause α₁-mediated vasoconstriction of cutaneous vessels → pallor. This distinguishes phaeochromocytoma from carcinoid syndrome (which causes flushing).
Why glucose intolerance? Catecholamines:
- Stimulate hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (β₂ and α₁ effects)
- Inhibit insulin secretion (α₂ effect on pancreatic β-cells)
- Promote insulin resistance
Urinary VMA. Urinary catecholamines and their metabolites (metanephrine and normetanephrine). Beware of drug and dietary interference (e.g. β-blocker, methyldopa). Measurement of plasma catecholamines available in some centres. [1]
Practical points for investigation:
- Collect 24-hour urine for catecholamines, metanephrines, and VMA
- The patient should avoid certain foods (bananas, chocolate, coffee, vanilla) and drugs that can cause false positives
- Plasma free metanephrines are increasingly used as the first-line screening test due to superior sensitivity (~96–99%)
CT scan / MRI. Contrast injection may induce a pressor crisis → patients should be prepared with complete adrenoceptor blockade. MIBG scan: taken up by chromaffin tissue, labelled with radioactive iodine, produces adrenomedullary images 24–48 hours after injection. [1]
Contrast Danger
Contrast injection may induce a pressor crisis — this is a critical safety point. Before any contrast imaging, the patient MUST have adequate α-blockade in place. A hypertensive crisis triggered by contrast in an unprepared patient can be fatal (stroke, MI, aortic dissection). The same principle applies before any surgical procedure or manipulation. [1]
MIBG scan: Meta-iodobenzylguanidine is structurally similar to noradrenaline and is taken up by chromaffin cells via the noradrenaline transporter. When labelled with ¹²³I or ¹³¹I, it produces functional imaging of catecholamine-producing tissue. Useful for:
- Detecting extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas/paragangliomas
- Identifying metastatic disease
- Post-surgical surveillance
Surgery. Full α and β blockade before surgery or any procedures to prevent crisis. Initially α-blockade with phenoxybenzamine, then β-blockade with propranolol. Important to institute α-blockade first. If β-blocker administered first, vasoconstriction due to unopposed α-adrenoceptor activity may occur and exacerbate hypertension. [1]
CRITICAL: α Before β — Never the Other Way Around
This is one of the most tested pharmacological principles in endocrine surgery. α-blockade MUST be established before β-blockade. The reasoning: catecholamines from the tumour stimulate both α and β receptors. If you block β-receptors first, you lose the vasodilatory effect of β₂-receptor stimulation in skeletal muscle vasculature. With β₂ blocked, only α₁-mediated vasoconstriction remains → unopposed α effect → severe hypertensive crisis. Starting with α-blockade (phenoxybenzamine — irreversible, non-selective α-blocker) removes vasoconstriction. Once α-blocked, you can safely add β-blockade to control reflex tachycardia.
Perioperative protocol:
- α-blockade (phenoxybenzamine 10–20mg BD–TDS, titrated over 1–2 weeks) → aim for postural hypotension (sign of adequate blockade)
- Liberal salt and fluid intake to re-expand contracted intravascular volume (chronic catecholamine excess causes volume contraction)
- β-blockade (propranolol) added ONLY after adequate α-blockade → controls tachycardia
- Intraoperative: IV phentolamine (short-acting α-blocker) or sodium nitroprusside for acute hypertensive surges during tumour manipulation
- Post-tumour removal: Watch for hypotension (loss of catecholamine drive + volume depletion) → IV fluids
Part 4: Adrenal Surgery
Conventional open techniques: anterior transabdominal, lateral extraperitoneal, posterior lumbar. Choice depends on: size, location, concomitant procedure, surgical expertise, pathology. [1]
Advantages: safety, efficacy, shortened hospital stay, reduced analgesic requirement, hastened return to normal activities, improved overall patient satisfaction. [1]
Laparoscopic adrenalectomy is now the standard of care for most benign adrenal tumours < 6 cm. Open surgery is reserved for large tumours ( > 6–8 cm), suspected adrenal carcinoma (due to need for en-bloc resection), or when laparoscopic approach is technically unfeasible.
Intraoperative haemorrhage (adrenal capsular, vena cava), splenic injury, liver injury, pneumothorax, loss of adrenal tissue. Others: hypertensive crisis, acute adrenal insufficiency, electrolyte disturbance. [1]
| Complication | Why It Happens |
|---|---|
| Haemorrhage (vena cava) | Right adrenal vein drains directly into IVC — short and fragile |
| Splenic injury | Left adrenalectomy — spleen is in close proximity |
| Liver injury | Right adrenalectomy — liver overlies right adrenal |
| Pneumothorax | Posterior approach — risk of breaching diaphragm |
| Hypertensive crisis | Tumour manipulation releases catecholamines (phaeochromocytoma) |
| Acute adrenal insufficiency | Loss of functional adrenal tissue or contralateral suppression |
| Electrolyte disturbance | Post-Conn's: transient hyperkalemia (aldosterone withdrawal); post-Cushing's: adrenal crisis |
The 2021 Fourth Summative Minicase [10] is a perfect example of how this lecture is tested. A 56-year-old woman with an incidental adrenal mass was investigated systematically:
- Exclude phaeochromocytoma first (24-hour urine catecholamines — normal)
- Exclude primary aldosteronism (aldosterone:renin ratio — normal)
- Exclude Cushing's (morning cortisol + 1mg overnight DST — fully suppressible)
- Address hypokalaemia — caused by hydrochlorothiazide (resolved after stopping)
- Then investigate other causes of hypercalcaemia found on bloods (PTH elevated → primary hyperparathyroidism → consider MEN 1: hyperparathyroidism + pituitary adenoma + pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour)
This systematic "rule-out" approach mirrors exactly what the lecture teaches.
From GC 153 [3], the biochemical approach to investigating hypertension reinforces the lecture content:
- Screening for primary aldosteronism: Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio (ARR) — should be measured under standardised conditions (morning, seated 5–15 min, after stopping interfering drugs)
- Plasma metanephrines: Increasingly the first-line screen for phaeochromocytoma (higher sensitivity than urinary catecholamines)
- 24-hour urinary free cortisol and overnight DST for Cushing's screening
Exam Intelligence
-
MCQ: "A patient presents with paroxysmal hypertension, headache, palpitations, and sweating. What is the most likely diagnosis?" → Phaeochromocytoma [8]
-
SAQ: "Describe the investigation pathway for suspected Cushing's syndrome, including how to differentiate pituitary from ectopic ACTH" → Use the DST algorithm + CRH test [1]
-
Minicase: Incidental adrenal mass + hypokalaemia → systematic exclusion of phaeochromocytoma, Conn's, Cushing's [10]
-
SAQ: "Why must α-blockade precede β-blockade in phaeochromocytoma?" → Standard explanation of unopposed α-activity [1]
-
SAQ/Minicase: "How do you differentiate an aldosterone-producing adenoma from bilateral adrenal hyperplasia?" → Postural test, AVS, CT, response to standing [1]
| Trap | Correct Approach |
|---|---|
| Assuming all adrenal incidentalomas are functional | Must biochemically exclude phaeochromocytoma, Conn's, and Cushing's regardless of symptoms |
| Giving β-blocker first in phaeochromocytoma | Always α-blockade first |
| Forgetting to stop interfering drugs before biochemical tests | Stop diuretics, β-blockers, ACEI for ≥2 weeks |
| Confusing Cushing's disease (pituitary) with Cushing's syndrome (any cause) | Cushing's disease is a subset of Cushing's syndrome |
| Using high-dose DST alone to differentiate causes | Need CRH test AND IPSS for definitive pituitary vs ectopic distinction |
| Forgetting steroid cover after adrenalectomy for Cushing's | Contralateral adrenal is suppressed → adrenal crisis without replacement |
- For phaeochromocytoma triad: "Paroxysmal hypertension with episodic headache, palpitations, and diaphoresis"
- For Conn's biochemistry: "Elevated aldosterone with suppressed renin (high aldosterone-to-renin ratio), failure of aldosterone suppression with salt loading"
- For DST interpretation: State: "Low-dose DST fails to suppress in all causes of Cushing's syndrome. High-dose DST suppresses in pituitary Cushing's disease but not in ectopic ACTH or adrenal causes"
Q1 (MCQ-style): A 45-year-old woman has resistant hypertension and spontaneous hypokalaemia. Her aldosterone-to-renin ratio is elevated. What is the most appropriate next investigation? Answer: Confirmatory test — saline infusion test (salt loading) to confirm primary aldosteronism
Q2 (SAQ): Describe the postural test for differentiating adrenal adenoma from bilateral adrenal hyperplasia in primary aldosteronism. Explain the physiological basis. Answer: Supine aldosterone measured at 8am (ACTH drive high, angiotensin low); erect at 12noon (ACTH fallen, angiotensin high). Adenoma is ACTH-sensitive → aldosterone paradoxically falls on standing. Hyperplasia is angiotensin-sensitive → exaggerated rise on standing.
Q3 (SAQ): A patient with Cushing's syndrome has an undetectable ACTH. What does this indicate? Answer: Non-ACTH-dependent Cushing's → adrenal cause (adenoma or carcinoma). Autonomous cortisol production suppresses pituitary ACTH via negative feedback.
Q4 (MCQ): Which of the following is the most important step before surgical removal of a phaeochromocytoma? (A) β-blockade (B) α-blockade (C) Calcium channel blocker (D) IV nitroprusside Answer: B — α-blockade (with phenoxybenzamine), which must precede β-blockade to prevent unopposed α-mediated vasoconstriction.
Q5 (SAQ): Explain why iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome has low endogenous cortisol but features of cortisol excess. Answer: Exogenous steroids cause clinical Cushing's features. However, they suppress ACTH via negative feedback, leading to adrenal atrophy and low endogenous cortisol production. If exogenous steroids are abruptly withdrawn, the patient develops adrenal crisis.
Q6 (Minicase): An adrenal incidentaloma is found on CT. What three endocrine conditions must be excluded biochemically? Answer: (1) Phaeochromocytoma — 24hr urine catecholamines/plasma metanephrines; (2) Primary aldosteronism — aldosterone:renin ratio (if hypertensive/hypokalaemic); (3) Cushing's syndrome — overnight 1mg DST or 24hr urinary free cortisol.
High Yield Summary
Three key causes of endocrine hypertension:
-
Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn's): Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis + hypertension. Screen with ARR, confirm with salt loading. Adenoma → surgery; hyperplasia → spironolactone. Postural test differentiates: adenoma aldosterone FALLS on standing (ACTH-driven), hyperplasia aldosterone RISES (angiotensin-driven).
-
Cushing's Syndrome: Screen with overnight 1mg DST or late-night salivary cortisol. Confirm with low-dose DST. Differentiate with ACTH level → if high: high-dose DST + CRH test → pituitary (suppresses) vs ectopic (doesn't). Medical prep (metyrapone/ketoconazole) before surgery. Steroid cover postoperatively.
-
Phaeochromocytoma: Classic triad: headache + palpitations + sweating with paroxysmal hypertension. Rule of 10 outdated. Diagnose with urinary catecholamines/metanephrines/VMA. Localise with CT/MRI (after α-blockade!) ± MIBG. Treatment: α-blockade first (phenoxybenzamine), THEN β-blockade (propranolol), THEN surgery. Never give β-blocker first.
Essential surgical principle: Adrenalectomy complications include haemorrhage (IVC for right), splenic/liver injury, hypertensive crisis, and acute adrenal insufficiency. Laparoscopic approach is standard for benign tumours.
Active Recall - I Have Fluctuating BP
[1] Lecture slides: GC 066. I have fluctuating BP.pdf (all pages/slides) [2] Senior notes: Block A - I have fluctuating BP_ cushing syndrome; adrenal diseases and tumours; other endocrine tumours.pdf [3] Lecture slides: GC 153. Biochemical Investigation of Hypertension.pdf [4] Senior notes: Block A - Clinical Pharmacology of anti-HT and anti-HF medications.pdf [5] Senior notes: Block A - Electrolyte and Acid-Base Disorders.pdf [6] Senior notes: Chemical Pathology Data interpretation.pdf [7] Senior notes: Endocrine Interactive Tutorial.pdf [8] Past papers: 2020 Fourth Summative Assessment MCQ paper.pdf (Q42) [9] Past papers: 2020 Fourth Summative SAQ.pdf (Q6) [10] Past papers: 2021 Fourth Summative Minicase.pdf (Case 1, Sections 2-3) [11] Lecture slides: Block A - High blood pressure_ hypertension.pdf
GC065 I Have An Itchy Rash
A clinical presentation of pruritic dermatitis requiring systematic evaluation to distinguish among common causes such as eczema, contact dermatitis, urticaria, fungal infections, and scabies.
GC067 I Keep On Bumping Into People On My Side
Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision in the same half of the visual field in both eyes, typically caused by a lesion in the contralateral optic tract, lateral geniculate nucleus, optic radiation, or occipital cortex, leading patients to collide with objects or people on their blind side.